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Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 5 học kỳ 2 năm 2023 – 2023
Đề thi học kì 2 lớp 5 môn tiếng AnhA. coach
B. bus
C. motorbike
A. train
B. plane
C. coach
A. train
B. ship
C. motorbike
A. boat
B. taxi
C. plane
Question 5. Listen and complete. (1pt)
1. The girls (1) must use the zebra crossing.
Question 7. Read and colour. Insert the missing letter in the gaps (1pt) Question 8. Read and write one or more words in each gap (1pt)
What Am I?
School pupils love me very much. I take them to school in the morning. I bring them home inthe afternoon. I always observe traffic rules. I stop when I see red light. I go when I see greenlight. I always stop for people to cross the street. I never go fast in busy streets. I always slowdown when people block my way. I pick up pupils along my way to the school. I stop for pupilsto get on or get off. I love pupils and they love me. Can you say what I am?
Question 9. Fill in each gap with a suitable word in the box. (1pt)
ahead/ helmets/ accidents/ nose/ night/
PART III. SPEAKING (5 minutes) (1pt) Question 10.
1. Listen and repeat
2. Point, ask and answer
4. Interview
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (5pts) 1. Circle the odd one out (2,5pts): Khoanh tròn từ khác loại vào A, B, C hoặc D.
1. A. Summer B. Winter C. Autumn D. Seasons
2. A. Train B. Bus C. Plane D. Book
3. A. Tomorrow B. Next week C. Yesterday D. Next Sunday
4. A. Turn right B. Turn left C. Museum D. Go straight ahead
5. A. Singer B. Player C. Sister D. Farmer
2. Match the questions in column A to their suitable answers in column B (2,5pts): (Nối câu hỏi ở cột A với các câu trả lời thích hợp ở cột B, bằng cách viết vào phần đáp án Answers) II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (5pts) 3. Reorder the words to make the sentences (2,5pts): Sắp xếp các từ sau thành câu đúng
1. wrote/ last weekend/ I/ a letter.
→ …………………………………………………………………………………..
2. a doctor/ should/ You/ see
→ …………………………………………………………………………………..
3. going/ to/ tomorrow/ are/ what/ you/ do?
→ …………………………………………………………………………………..?
4. is/ Where/ zoo/ the?
→ …………………………………………………………………………………..?
5. like/ weather/ in/ summer/ What’s/ the?
→ …………………………………………………………………………………..?
4. Read and tick True or False (2,5points) Đọc và viết: T (đúng), F (sai).
My name is Peter. I’m from England. It’s very cold in my country. In winter, I often go skiing with my friends. It is usually hot in summer. I sometimes go swimming in summer. I like travelling. I often travel to America. I go there by plane.
5. He often travels to America by plane.
Đáp án đề kiểm tra học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 5 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (5pts) 1. Circle the odd one out: Khoanh tròn từ khác loại (2,5pts)
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C
2. Match the questions in column A to their suitable answers in column B (2,5pts):
1 – e 2 – d 3 – a 4 – c 5 – b
II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (5pts) 3. Reorder the words to make the sentences (2,5pts): Sắp xếp các từ thành câu đúng.
1. I wrote a letter last weekend.
2. You should see a doctor.
3. What are you going to do tomorrow?
4. Where is the zoo?
5. What’s the weather like in winter?
4. Read and tick True or False (2,5pts) Đọc và viết: T (đúng), F (sai).
1. F 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. T
Question 4. Listen and tick. (1 pt) Question 5. Listen and complete. (1pt) OUR SCHOOL PLAY by Katie Evans
This year, our school play was Little Riding Hood.
The (0) play was in the classroom on Thursday afternoon. Our families were there.
ANSWER KEYS Question 1:
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D
Question 2:
1. pink 2. green 3. brown 4. red
Question 3:
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A
Question 4:
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A
Question 5:
1. was 2. coat 3. were 4. English
IV. Đề thi học kì 2 lớp 5 được tải nhiều nhấtBộ Đề Thi Học Kì 2 Lớp 12 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án
Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 12 học kì 2 năm 2023 – 2023
Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp ánChoose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
1. The disappearance (A) of one (B) or several species may result in (C) the lost (D) of biodiversity.
2. This book needs to read (A) carefully (B) before you must (C) make a report on it (D).
3. I would like to recommend (A) the book to (B) anyone who (C) like (D) plants.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 4 to 5.
4. The reduction and possible elimination of waste tires may become a reality.
A. fulfillment
B. eradication
C. formation
D. addition
5. Another benefit is the reduction of traffic noise, a serious issue in urban areas.
A. shortcoming
B. reward
C. merit
D. damage
A. recommendation
B. information
C. fiction
D. interest
7. Species that have already lost habitat because of deforestation were given higher priority in the plan because of their greater risk of extinction.
A. ecology
B. natural surroundings
C. nature
D. domain
Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part. Choose the word with the different stress pattern.
10. A. imagine B. swallowing C. difficult D. interested
11. A. current B. toxic C. remain D. forest
12. A. alike B. like C. likely D. as
13. A. read B. reality C. realize D. realistic
14. A. original B. origin C. originate D. originally
15. A. blow B. drive C. ride D. climb
16. A. should B. must C. needn’t D. couldn’t
Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.
17. Endangered species are plant and animal species which are in danger of ………
A. expression
B. expulsion
C. extension
D. extinction
18. Children enjoy reading a ……… because they don’t have to read much.
A. thriller
B. comic
C. biography
D. novel
19. It is estimated about 5,000 species of plants and animals are ……. each year.
A. eliminated
B. cut down
C. hunted
D. poached
20. Books provide us with a wonderful source of knowledge and……
A. leisure
B. information
C. news
D. pleasure
21. Governments have ………… laws to protect wildlife from overhunting.
A. passed
B. done
C. given
D. discussed
22. She usually dips …………… a travel book.
A. with
B. through
C. in
D. into
23. Gorillas are peaceful and mainly plant – eating …………….
A. creatures
B. figures
C. creators
D. members
24. ……. sometimes describe books as ” hard – to – put – down” or “hard – to – pick – up – again”.
A. Sellers
B. Editors
C. Reviewers
D. Publishers
25. The Red List has been introduced to raise people’s awareness …………… conservation needs.
A. on
B. of
C. at
D. for
26. We can’t read different …………… of books in the same way.
A. columns
B. kinds
C. series
D. brands
27. The room ……… once a day.
A. should clean
B. should be cleaning
C. should be cleaned
D. should have cleaned
28. Keep quiet. You chúng tôi so loudly in here. Everybody is working.
A. may
B. must
C. might
D. mustn’t
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
29. Tom: “Whose book is this?” – John: “………………..”
A. It’s John’s sister.
B. It’s John’s sister’s.
C. That John’s sister’s.
D. John’s sister’s book.
30. Two friends James and Susan are talking about Mary’s accident.
James: “Mary had an accident last night. Her leg was broken”
– Susan: “……………………….”
A. Poor her.
B. Poor it.
C. How terrific!
D. Oh! Very surprise!
Air pollution can affect our health in many ways with both short-term and long-term effects. Different groups of individuals are affected by air pollution in different ways. Some individuals are much more sensitive to pollutants than are others. Young children and elderly people often suffer more from the effects of air pollution. People with health problems such as asthma, heart and lung disease may also suffer more when the air is polluted. The extent to which an individual is harmed by air pollution usually depends on the total exposure to the damaging chemicals
Examples of short-term effects include irritation to the eyes, nose and throat, and upper respiratory infections such as bronchitis and pneumonia. Other symptoms can include headaches, nausea, and allergic reactions.
Long-term health effects can include chronic respiratory disease, lung cancer, heart disease, and even damage to the brain, nerves, liver, or kidneys. Continual exposure to air pollution affects the lungs of growing children and may aggravate or complicate medical conditions in the elderly. It is estimated that half a million people die prematurely every year in the United States as a result of smoking cigarettes.
A. air pollution
B. the effect of air pollution
C. those who are affected by air pollution
D. the respiratory diseases
32. Which sentence is true?
A. Everybody is affected by air pollution in the same way.
B. All people are sensitive to pollutants.
C. Pollutants are not really harmful to people.
D. We are affected by air pollution individually.
33. Which is caused by long- term effects of air pollution?
A. sore eyes
B. bronchitis
C. headache
D. lung cancer
34. Which part of body is not affected by air pollution?
A. Brain
B. Lung
C. Heart
D. Stomach
A. suggested ways to prevent air pollution
B. listed the effects of air pollution
C. proposed solutions to air pollution
Choose the best sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
36. It’s forbidden to smoke in this building.
A. You don’t have to smoke in this building.
B. You are allowed to smoke in this building.
C. You must not smoke in this building.
D. Smoking in this building is permitted.
37. It’s your duty to make a report on books tomorrow.
A. You should report on books tomorrow.
B. You will make a report on books tomorrow.
C. You are supposed make a report on books tomorrow.
D. You must make a report on books tomorrow.
38. Some people think that computers can replace books entirely.
A. It is said that computers can replace books entirely.
B. Computers are thought to can replace books entirely.
C. Computers can replace books entirely like some people think.
D. Replacing books by computers is very necessary.
39. Perhaps these are the keys.
A. These might be the keys.
B. These won’t be the keys.
C. These must be the keys.
D. These needn’t be the keys.
40. Books are a cheap way to get information and entertainment.
A. Getting information and entertainment in books is a cheap way.
B. A cheap way to get information and entertainment is books.
C. Reading books helps you looking for information and entertainment.
D. Books can deliver information and entertainment you need cheap.
Đáp án đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh 12 học kì 2 số 1Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
1 – D; 2 – A; 3 – D;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 4 to 5.
4 – C; 5 – A;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 6 to 7.
6 – A; 7 – B;
Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part.
8 – D; 9 – B;
Choose the word with the different stress pattern.
10 – A; 11 – C;
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.
12 – B;13 – D; 14 – A; 15 – C; 16 – B;
Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.
17 – D; 18 – B; 19 – A; 20 – D; 21 – A;
22 – D; 23 – A; 24 – C; 25 – B; 26 – B; 27 – C; 28 – D;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
29 – B; 30 – A;
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
31 – B; 32 – D; 33 – D; 34 – D; 35 – B;
Choose the best sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
36 – C; 37 – D; 38 – A; 39 – A; 40 – B;
Đề số 2Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part. Choose the word with the different stress pattern. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
5.The reduction and possible elimination of waste tires may become a reality.
A. fulfillment
B.eradication
C. formation
D. addition
6. Another benefit is the reduction of traffic noise, a serious issue in urban areas.
A. shortcoming
B. reward
C. merit
D. damage
A. recommendation
B. information
C. fiction
D. interest
8. Many suggest that the trade in tropical wood products is the primary source of deforestation.
A. petrifaction of forests
B.deformation of forests
C. fossilization of forests
D. destruction of forests
Global warming is the phenomenon that the average temperature of the earth raises continuously. Its temperatures may rise by 1.4 to 5.8 degrees Celsius. The greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide or methane are the cause of the global warming. The greenhouse gases create a natural greenhouse effect.
Human activities such as burning fuels, lumbering, and agriculture will release greenhouse gases. Some of the non-human causes are volcanic emissions, solar activity, variations in the earth’s orbit.
What are the effects of global warming? The rising temperature of the earth will cause the polar ice to melt. As the ice melts, the water will cause the rising sea level and pattern of climate changes. The extreme weather such as hurricanes, tornados, droughts, heat wave, and floods occur more frequently. Other effects of global warming are lower agricultural productions, animal extinctions, or reduced summer stream flows.
There are still many scientific uncertainties of causes and effects of global warming. Some scientists argue that, “Even if there are no greenhouse gases, the events of rising sea and global warming would continue. The carbon dioxide is known for its long average atmospheric lifetime”.
A. makes the earth cooler and cooler
B. makes the temperature of the earth increase
C. is not caused by carbon dioxide
D. has no relation to the greenhouse gases
A. global warming
B. the earth
C. greenhouse gases
D. the temperature
A. human beings are the only cause of global warming
B. volcanic emissions and solar activities are not responsible for greenhouse gases
C. natural event is the only main source of greenhouse gases
D. both human activities and natural events can cause greenhouse gases
12. Which is not the effect of global warming?
A. The volcanic eruptions
B. The melting of the polar ice
C. The rising of the sea level
D. The loss of agricultural productions
13. Which sentence is true?
A. Scientists know very well about causes and effects of global warming.
B. Scientists know nothing about causes and effects of global warming.
C. Scientists are not concerned about global warming.
D. There have been uncertainties of causes and effects of global warming.
Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.
14. The number of species around the globe threatened with .. is over 15,000.
A. expression
B. expulsion
C. extension
D. extinction
15. A ……………. book tells stories through pictures.
A. thriller
B. comic
C. biography
D. novel
16. It is estimated about 5,000 species of plants and animals are … each year.
A. eliminated
B. cut down
C. hunted
D. poached
17. Books provide us with a wonderful …… of knowledge and pleasure.
A. resource
B. base
C. source
D. foundation
18. Governments have enacted laws to protect wildlife from ……. trade.
A. legal
B. commercial
C. domestic
D. international
19. My father usually dips …………… a travel book.
A. with
B. through
C. in
D. into
20. Gorillas are peaceful and mainly plant – eating …………….
A. creatures
B. figures
C. creators
D members
21. …………….. sometimes describe books as ” hard – to – put – down” or “hard – to – pick – up – again”.
A. Sellers
B. Editors
C. Reviewers
D. Publishers
22. The Red List is a … list of endangered and vulnerable animal species
A. long
B. local
C. global
D. national
23. The next meeting …………. in May.
A. will hold
B. will be held
C. will be holding
D. will have held
24. We can’t read different …………… of books in the same way.
A. columns
B. types
C. series
D. brands
25. The computer ……… reprogramming. There is something wrong with the software.
A. must
B. need
C. should
D. may
Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
26. Species that (A) loss (B) habitat because of deforestation (C) were given higher priority in the plan because of their greater risk of extinction (D).
27. I would like recommend (A) the book to (B) anyone who (C) likes (D) plants.
28. There are (A) a number of measures (B) that should take (C) to protect endangered (D) animals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
29.Tom: “Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?”
– John: “………………..”
A. Yes, I do, too.
B.No, thanks
C. Yes, sure.
D.No way, I just bought another book.
30.. James: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
– Susan: “……………………….”
A. There’s no doubt about it.
B. Of course not. You bet.
C. Well that’s very surprising
D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.
Choose the best sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
36. I think it’s wrong for you to work so hard.
A. You don’t have to work so hard.
B. You will work so hard.
C. You shouldn’t work so hard.
D. You might work so hard.
37. It’s your duty to make a report on books tomorrow.
A. You should report on books tomorrow.
B. You must make a report on books tomorrow.
C. You are supposed make a report on books tomorrow.
D. You will make a report on books tomorrow.
38. Some people think that computers can replace books entirely.
A. Replacing books by computers is very necessary.
B. Computers are thought to can replace books entirely.
C. Computers can replace books entirely like some people think.
D. It is said that computers can replace books entirely.
39. Perhaps these are the keys.
A. These might be the keys.
B. These won’t be the keys.
C. These must be the keys.
D. These needn’t be the keys.
40. We should do something to encourage children to read better.
A. To encourage children to read better, we have to do something to them.
B. Something should be done to encourage children to read better.
C. We will encourage children to read more books better by doing something.
D. Encouraging children to read better should be done by everybody.
Bộ Đề Thi Học Kì 1 Lớp 8 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án
Bộ 4 đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 8 có đáp án
5 Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 8 học kì 1 có đáp án Đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 8 học kì 1 có đáp án – Đề số 1A. Certainly
B. Yes, I can
C. Yes, please
D. No, thanks
A. playing
B. plays
C. play
D. to play
A. since
B. from
C. in
D. for
A. between
B. in
C. on
D. at
A. strong
B. strength
C. stronger
D. strengthen
A. to play
B. playing
C. play
D. plays
A. to wash up
B. wash up
C. washing up
D. washed up
A. herself
B. ourselves
C. itself
D. himself
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Alexander Graham Bell was born in 1847 in Edinburgh, Scotland. He moved to Canada and then to the USA in the 1870s. In America, he worked with deaf-mutes at Boston University. Soon, Bell started experimenting with ways of transmitting speech over a long distance. This led to the invention of the telephone. Thomas Watson was Bell’s assistant. Bell and Watson introduced the telephone in 1876. Bell demonstrated his invention at a lot of exhibitions. He died in 1922.
1. When and where was Alexander Graham Bell born?
2. What did he do when he was at Boston University?
3. Who was Thomas Watson?
4. What did Bell and Watson do in 1876?
Rewrite these sentences as directed.
1. He is strong. He can carry that suitcase. (use enough)
2. The doctor said: “You should take a few days off.”
3. She started learning to swim five years ago.
4. Lan said “Please give Tim this dictionary.”
Use the given words to make sentences.
1. She / like / learn English/./
2. She / learn / this language /since 2008/./
3. She / always / want / improve her English/./
4. She / buy / an English -Vietnamese dictionary/ last week /./
ĐÁP ÁN Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced is differently from that of the others. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each unfinished sentence below. Choose the word (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each of the blank spaces. Read the text and answer the questions.
1. Alexander Graham Bell was born in 1847 in Edinburgh, Scotland There are 26 classrooms.
2. He worked with deaf-mutes at BostonUniversity.
3. Thomas Watson was Bell’s assistant.
4. Bell and Watson introduced the telephone in 1876.
Rewrite these sentences as directed.
1. He is strong enough to carry that suitcase.
3. She has learnt to swim for 5 years.
4. Lan told me to give Tim that dictionary.
Use the given words to make sentences.
1. She likes learning English.
2. She has learnt this language since 2008.
3. She always wants to improve her English.
4. She bought an English -Vietnamese dictionary last week.
Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 8 có đáp án – Đề số 2I. LISTENING: Listen to the tape carefully and do the two exercises below: (1.5 pts) * Write True or False (1 pt)
1. It is 60 meters from Ba’s village to the north of Ha Noi.
2. The trip to her village lasted one day.
3. There is a small bamboo forest at the entrances to the village.
4. getting to the village is very enjoyable journey.
* Circle A or B to choose the correct answers (0.5 pt)
5. A The village is far from a river.
B. The village is near a river.
6. It took them about 30 minutes to reach
B. It took them about 30 minutes to visit the village. Ba’s uncle.
A. house
B. mosque
C. place
D. shrine
A. changeably
B. changeable
C. exchange
D. change
3. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others
A. examiner
B. campus
C. dormitory
D. institute
A. take
B. to take
C. taking
D. taken
5. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other word.
A. relax
B. blanket
D. pagoda
A. speak
B. spoke
C. spoken
D. speaking
III. Supply the correct form of the words in parentheses: (1 pt)
1. My teacher is very young, but she is very. (experience)
2. You should after a hard working day. (relaxation)
3. Please give me some about this tour. (inform)
4. You should prepare carefully for your coming. (examine)
III. READING COMPREHENSION (2.5 pts) Read the passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False: (1pt)
My best friend, Na learned English at school and university many years ago. She is now studying English again in London because she’s forgotten a lot of it. Na really needs English for her job. She works for an international bank in Hanoi. Her speaking and reading are excellent. She just wants to improve her writing skill so that she can write normal letter in English. In Na’s opinion the aspect of learning English she finds most difficult is listening. It’s her biggest problem. People speak very quickly and she can’t understand them. Although she has difficulty in studying this language, she likes it a lot. She said it was an interesting language and she could talk to people from all over the world… and she could understand the words of her favorite song, too.
1. English is unnecessary for Na’s job.
2. Na can speak English very well.
3. People talk too quickly for Na to understand.
4. Na finds English very interesting because she has no difficulty in studying it.
Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space (1.5 pts)
farm being near play
to play chores nearby with
3. Are they used to (go) fishing on this weekend?
V. WRITING (2.5 pts) Rewrite the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence: (1.5 pts)
1. Because it was very cold, we turned off the air conditional.
2. Ba asked his sister: “Will you meet our mother tomorrow?”
3. Mary doesn’t know the way to her best friend’s house.
Write sentences with the cues given to make meaningful sentences: (1 pt)
4. We/ enjoy/ learn/ English/ be able/ communicate/ the foreigners.
5. She/ usually/ practice/ listen/ English program/ TV.
Đáp án Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2023 I. LISTENING: Listen to the tape carefully and do the two exercises below: (1.5 pts) * Write True or False (1 pt)
1. F; 2. F; 3. F; 4. T;
* Circle A or B to choose the correct answers (0.5 pt)
1. B; 2. A;
II. USE OF ENGLISH: Write A, B, C or D which best completes the sentences: (1.5 pts)
1. D; 2. C; 3. A; 4. B; 5. D; 6. C;
III. Supply the correct form of the words in parentheses (1 pt)
1. experienced; 2. Relax; 3. Information; 4. examination;
IV. READING COMPREHENSION (2.5 pts) Read the passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1pt)
1. F; 2. T; 3. T; 4. F
Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space (1.5 pts)
1. with; 2. Nearby; 3. Chores; 4. Farm; 5. Play;6. being
V. Supply the correct Tense or Form of the Verbs in parentheses: (1 pt)
1. would buy; 2. didn’t answer; 3. Going; 4. gets
VI. WRITING (2.5 pts) Rewrite the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence: (1.5 pts)
1. It was very cold, so we turned off the air conditioner.
2. Ba asked his sister if she would meet their mother the following day/ the next day.
3. Mary wishes she knew the way to her best friend’s house.
Write sentences with the cues given to make meaningful sentences: (1 pt)
4. We enjoy learning English to be able to communicate with the foreigners.
5. She always practice listening to English program on TV.
Đề thi tiếng Anh 8 học kì 1 có đáp án – Đề số 3A. too
B. got
C. played
D. made
A. farm
B. grocery
C. field
D. park
A. full-time
B. time-full
C. part-time
D. time-part
A. what/was
B. if/was
C. what/is
D. if/is
A. speak
B. spoke
C. to speak
D. speaking
A. send
B. to send
C. sending
D. sends
A. for
B. in
C. at
D. of
A. on
B. in
C. at
D. into
IV. READING COMPREHENSION (2.5 pts) Read the passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False ( 1pt)
Marie was born in Poland in 1876. She learnt to read when she was 4 years old. She was intelligent and hard an excellent memory. She finished high school when she was 15 years old. When she grew up, Marie went to Paris to study Mathematics and Chemistry at the University. She won the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1903 and 8 years later she received the Nobel Prize for Chemistry. Marie Curie died in 1934.
1.She finished high school in 1891
2. She studied Mathematics and Chemistry at the University in Paris.
3. She won the Nobel Prize for Physics when she was 28.
4. Marie Curie died in 1943.
Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the following passages: (1.5 pts)
ran (2) picking (3) wait (4) stopped (5) picked
collected (7) take (8) went (9) turning (10) dropped
V. Rewrite the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence: (2 pts)
1. When did you first know this bamboo forest?
2. I can’t have lunch with you now.
3. The teacher punished this pupil because he was very lazy.
4. She asked me, ” Why are you learning English?”
Đáp án đề thi tiếng Anh 8 học kì 1 năm 2023 I. USE OF ENGLISH: Write A, B, C or D which best completes the sentences: (2 pts)
1. A; 2. B; 3. C; 4. A; 5. B; 6. A; 7. D; 8. A
II. Supply the correct form of the words in parentheses (1.5 pt)
1. reputation; 2. Qualified; 3. unfriendly; 4. wonderful; 5. Interesting; 6. enjoyably;
III. Supply the correct Tense or Form of the Verbs in parentheses: (1 pt)
1. to speaking; 2. have worked; 3. would be; 4. talking;
IV. READING COMPREHENSION (2.5 pts) Read the passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1pt)
1. T; 2. T; 3. F; 4. F
Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space (1.5 pts)
1. collected; 2. picking; 3. stopped; 4. ran; 5. turning; 6. dropped
V. Rewrite the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence: (2 pts)
1.How long have you known this bamboo forest?
2. I wish I could have lunch with you now.
3. This boy was very lazy so his teacher punished him.
4. She asked me why I was learning English.
Đề thi học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 8 có đáp án – Đề số 4I. LISTENING: Listen to the tape and write True or False (1 pt)
1. Nga started studying English at university.
2. She works for the national bank.
3. She needs to improve her writing and listening.
4. She hopes she can understand her favorite English song.
A. on
B. in
C. to
D. at
A. can
B. could
C. might
D. should
A. boating
B. skating
C. shopping
D. camping
A. field
B. entrance
C. gate
D. forest
A. house
B. shrine
C. mosque
D. place
A. work
B. to work
C. working
D. worked
A. side
B. detail
C. position
D. aspect
A. and
B. or
C. of
D. with
V. READING COMPREHENSION (2.5 pts) Read the passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False ( 1pt)
Mr. and Mrs. Wilson and their children were going to begin their vacation one day, and they had to be at the airport at 11:40 am. Mr. Wilson said that it would take them half an hour to get to the airport in the taxi so they all had to be ready at 11 o’clock.
At 10 to 11 they were still all running around doing things, except Mrs. Wilson, who was sitting quietly on a chair in the garden enjoying the sun.
Her husband and the children were very surprised that she was not in a hurry until the taxi arrived and Mrs. Wilson said to them, ” Well, I knew that this was going to happen, so before I went to bed last night, I moved all our clocks and watches ahead twenty minutes. So now we can go to the airport quietly without worry about being late”
1.The Wilson were going to begin their vacation in one day.
2. It would be better for them to leave the house before 11 o’clock.
3. all the members in the Wilsons were in a hurry when it was about 11 am.
4. They were late because Mrs. Wilson moved all clocks and watches ahead about 20 minutes
VI. Rewrite the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence: (2 pts)
1. Because the weather was cold, we had to cancel our picnic.
2. Mary can’t sing well and she is not happy about that.
3. My father said “I have to leave now, Lan”
4. When did you stared joining this English speaking club?
Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 8 I. LISTENING: Listen to the tape and write True or False (1 pt) II. USE OF ENGLISH: Write A, B, C or D which best completes the sentences: (2 pts)
1. B; 2. B; 3. A; 4. B; 5. B; 6. A; 7. D; 8. B;
III. Supply the correct form of the words in parentheses (1.5 pt)
1. interesting; 2. collection; 3. exactly;
IV. Supply the correct Tense or Form of the Verbs in parentheses: (1 pt)
1. to travel; 2. has not seen; 3. goes; 4. hearing;
V. READING COMPREHENSION (2.5 pts) Read the passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False ( 1pt)
1. F; 2. T; 3. F; 4. F;
Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space (1.5 pts)
1. hear; 2. important; 3. of; 4. information; 5. hearing; 6. do;
VI. Rewrite the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence: (2 pts)
1.The weather was cold, so we had to cancel our picnic.
2. Mary wishes she could sing well.
3. My father told Lan that he had to leave then.
4. How long have you joined the English club?
Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 8 có đáp án – Đề số 5I. LISTENING: Listen to the tope and write .True or False: (1pt)
1. Nga started studying English at university.
2. She works for a national bank in Ha Noi.
3. She needs to improve her writing and listening.
4. She hopes she can understand her favorite English songs
A. study
B. studied
C. learnt
D. learning
A. full-time
B. time-full
C. part-time
D. time-part
A. what /was
B. if/was
C. what /is
D. if/is
4. There is a big banyan at the to the village.
A. field
B. entrance
C. gate
D. forest
A. could sing
B. can sing
C. might sing
D. sang
A. showed
B. to show
C. showing
D. show
A. on
B. in
C. to
D. at
A. in
B. on
C. at
D. above
V. Reading Comprehension (2,5 pts) Read the passage, and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False: (1 pt)
Marie was born in Poland in 1876. She learnt to read when she was 4 years old. She was intelligent and had an excellent memory. She finished high school when she was only 15 years old. When she grew up, Marie went ạ Paris to study Mathematics, and Chemistry at the University. She won the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1903 and 8 years later she received the Nobel Prize for Chemistry. Marie Curie died in 1934.
1. She finished high school in 1891.
2. She studied Mathematics and Chemistry at the University in Paris.
3. She won the Nobel Prize for Physics when she was 28.
4. Marie Curie died in 1943.
VI. Rewrite the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence (2pts) .
1. When did they start building this bridge?
2. Thu doesn’t have enough time to do the test.
3. My brother passed the exam because he did the test very well.
4. She asked me “What do you study English for? “
Đáp án Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 8 năm 2023 I. LlSTENING: Listen to the tape and write True or False: (1pt)
1. F; 2. F; 3. T; 4. T
II. USE OF ENGLISH: Write A.B.C; or D which best completes the sentences: (2pts)
1. D; 2. C; 3. A; 4. B; 5. A; 6. D; 7. B; 8. B;
III. Supply the correct form of Words in parentheses: (1,5pts)
1. interested; 2. unfriendly; 3. wonderful; 4. enjoyably; 5. reputation; 6. qualified;
IV. Supply the correct Tense or Form of the Verbs in parentheses: (1pt)
1. speaking; 2. haven’t seen; 3. comes; 4. would find
V. Reading Comprehension: (2,5 pts) Read the passage, and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False: (1pt)
1. T; 2. T; 3. F; 4. F;
Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the following passage: (1,5pts)
1. important; 2. information; 3. yourself; 4. learning; 5. without; 6. do;
VI. Rewrite the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence: (2pts)
1. When did they start building this bridge?
How long have they built this bridge?
or How long is it since they started…?
or How long ago did they start…?
2. Thu doesn’t have enough time to do the test.
Thu wishes she had enough time to do the test.
3. My brother passed the exam because he did the test very well.
My brother passed the exam because of his good answers in the test.
or My brother did the test very well, so he passed the exam.
4. She asked me “What do you study English for? “
She asked me what I studied English for.
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Đề Thi Học Kì 2 Lớp 5 Môn Tiếng Việt Năm 2023 Đề Số 2 Có Đáp Án
Mời các em tham khảo đề thi học kì 2 lớp 5 môn Tiếng Việt năm học 2023 – 2023 đề số 2 kèm đáp án và hướng dẫn giải chi tiết bao gồm những dạng câu hỏi và bài tập thường gặp để chuẩn bị cho bài thi cuối kì sắp tới. Đây cũng là tài liệu hữu ích để phụ huynh dạy và học cùng con ở nhà.
Đề thi môn Tiếng Việt lớp 5 học kì 2 năm học 2023-2023 – Đề số 2 Đề thi học kì 2 lớp 5 môn Tiếng Việt – Đề số 2I.ĐỌC THẦM VÀ KIẾN THỨC TIẾNG VIỆT ( 7 ĐIỂM)
Đọc thầm bài sau và ghi lại chữ cái đặt trước ý đúng hoặc ghi câu trả lời đúng cho mỗi câu hỏi vào tờ giấy kiểm tra:
Cho và nhận
Một cô giáo đã giúp tôi hiểu rõ ý nghĩa phức tạp của việc cho và nhận.
Khi thấy tôi cầm sách trong giờ tập đọc, cô đã nhận thấy có gì không bình thường, cô liền thu xếp cho tôi đi khám mắt. Cô không đưa tôi đến bệnh viện, mà dẫn tôi đến bác sĩ nhãn khoa riêng của cô. Ít hôm sau, như với một người bạn, cô đưa cho tôi một cặp kính.
– Em không thể nhận được! Em không có tiền trả đâu thưa cô! – Tôi nói, cảm thấy ngượng ngùng vì nhà mình nghèo.
Thấy vậy, cô liền kể một câu chuyện cho tôi nghe. Chuyện kể rằng: ” Hồi cô còn nhỏ, một người hàng xóm đã mua kính cho cô. Bà ấy bảo, một ngày kia cô sẽ trả cho cặp kính đó bằng cách tặng cho một cô bé khác. Em thấy chưa, cặp kính này đã được trả tiền từ trước khi em ra đời”. Thế rồi, cô nói với tôi những lời nồng hậu nhất, mà chưa ai khác từng nói với tôi: “Một ngày nào đó, em sẽ mua kính cho một cô bé khác”.
Cô nhìn tôi như một người cho. Cô làm cho tôi thành người có trách nhiệm. Cô tin tôi có thể có một cái gì để trao cho người khác. Cô chấp nhận tôi như thành viên của cùng một thế giới mà cô đang sống. Tôi bước ra khỏi phòng, tay giữ chặt kính trong tay, không phải như kẻ vừa được nhận món quà, mà như người chuyển tiếp món quà cho người khác với tấm lòng tận tụy.
(Xuân Lương)
Câu 1: Vì sao cô giáo lại dẫn bạn học sinh đi khám mắt? (0,5 điểm)
a. Vì bạn ấy bị đau mắt.
b) Vì bạn ấy không có tiền
c. Vì bạn ấy không biết chỗ khám mắt.
d. Vì cô đã thấy bạn ấy cầm sách đọc một cách không bình thường.
Câu 2: Cô giáo đã làm gì để bạn học sinh vui vẻ nhận kính? (0,5 điểm)
a.Nói rằng đó là cặp kính rẻ tiền, không đáng là bao nên bạn không phải bận tâm.
b. Nói rằng có ai đó nhờ cô mua tặng bạn.
c. Kể cho bạn nghe một câu chuyện để bạn hiểu rằng bạn không phải là người được nhận quà mà chỉ là người chuyền tiếp món quà cho người khác.
d. Vì lời ngọt ngào, dễ thương của cô .
Câu 3: Dấu gạch ngang trong câu sau có tác dụng gì? (0,5 điểm)
– Em không thể nhận được! Em không có tiền trả đâu thưa cô!
a. Đánh dấu những ý liệt kê.
b. Đánh dấu bộ phận giải thích.
c. Đánh dấu những từ đứng sau nó là lời nói trực tiếp của nhân vật.
d. Báo hiệu đó là các ý đối thoại trong đoạn văn.
Câu 4: Việc cô thuyết phục bạn học sinh nhận kính của mình cho thấy cô là người thế nào? (0,5 điểm)
Câu 5: Câu chuyện muốn nói với em điều gì? (1 điểm)
Câu 6: Qua câu chuyện trên em học được điều gì ở các nhân vật? (1 điểm)
a. đơn giản
b. đơn điệu
c. đơn sơ
d. đơn thuần
Câu 8: Câu nào sau đây là câu ghép: (0,5 điểm)
a. Một cô giáo đã giúp tôi hiểu rõ ý nghĩa phức tạp của việc cho và nhận.
b. Khi thấy tôi cầm sách trong giờ tập đọc, cô đã nhận thấy có gì không bình thường, cô liền thu xếp cho tôi đi khám mắt.
c. Thấy vậy, cô liền kể một câu chuyện cho tôi nghe.
d. Bà ấy bảo, một ngày kia cô sẽ trả cho cặp kính đó bằng cách tặng cho một cô bé khác.
Câu 9 :Xác định bộ phận trạng ngữ, chủ ngữ và vị ngữ trong câu sau: (1 điểm)
Em thấy chưa, cặp kính này đã được trả tiền từ trước khi em ra đời.
Câu 10 : Điền cặp từ hô ứng vào các chỗ trống cho thích hợp và viết lại câu văn đó ? (1 điểm) .
Tôi … cầm sách để đọc, cô giáo… nhận ra là mắt tôi không bình thường.
II. Phần viết :
1 . Chính tả :(Nghe – viết) bài Bà cụ bán hàng nước chè SGK Tập 2 trang 102 (2 điểm)
2. Tập làm văn: Hãy tả cảnh đêm rằm trung thu (8 điểm)
Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 lớp 5 môn Tiếng Việt đề số 2II. Phần viết :
Hãy tả cảnh đêm rằm trung thu
1) Mở bài: Giới thiệu đêm trăng định tả ở đâu? Vào dịp nào?
2) Thân bài:
a) Tả bao quát: Vẻ đẹp của cảnh vật dưới đêm trăng.
b) Tả chi tiết:
– Vẻ đẹp của trăng khi mới xuất hiện, khi trăng đã lên cao.
– Cảnh vật đêm trăng, mặt đất, con sông, mặt hồ, cây cối, con người, con vật, gió…
– Vẻ đẹp của trăng khi trời đã về khuya.
3) Kết bài: Cảm nghĩ của em về đêm trăng đẹp
Xem các bài văn mẫu: Tả cảnh đêm rằm trung thu hay nhất
***********************
Bộ Đề Thi Học Kì 1 Lớp 11 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án
2 Đề thi tiếng Anh học kì 1 lớp 11 năm 2023 có đáp án
VnDoc.com xin giới thiệu đến các bạn 2 Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 11 môn Anh có đáp án được sưu tầm và đăng tải nhằm giúp các bạn có nguồn tài liệu hữu ích để thử sức và tập dượt, đánh giá năng lực cá nhân cũng như chuẩn bị các kĩ năng cần thiết cho kì thi học kì 1 sắp tới đây. Mời các bạn vào tham khảo.
2 Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 11 học kì 1 có đáp án Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án – Đề số 1A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (24 câu = 6 điểm) I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (1p). II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions (1p).
3. She said that she will be here the next week. A B C D
4. We were not inviting to their wedding anniversary last week. A B C D
III. Choose from the four options given one best answer to complete each sentence. (2.75p).
1. Lan: What do you think of the General Knowledge Quiz?
A. Yes, that’s right
B. Oh, it’s great
C. It’s not a good idea.
D. Ok, I don’t agree
A. Good luck.
B. That’s a good idea.
C. It’s nice of you to say so.
D. Congratulations
A. from B. of C. for D. with
A. wear B. to wear C. to be wearing D. wearing
A. had I seen B. that I saw C. if had I seen D. if I had seen
A. to be embarrassed B. embarrassing C. embarrass D. embarrassed
A. representative B. student C. worker D. teacher
A. buy B. bought C. to buy D. buying
A. a B. the C. ø D. an
A. Are you going for a walk? B. Did you go for a walk?
C. Could you go for a walk? D. How about going for a walk?
A. to tell B. tell C. telling D. told
The Organisation for Educational Development co-operated with Spring School to set up English classes in 1998. Dance, theatre, singing and folk music classes were set up a year later. Children from these classes participate in fundraising performances. They raise money to continue their English and performance Arts classes.
Spring School requires volunteers to help organize their fundraising dinner held annually in June. This is an exciting night in which children dance, sing and play music at one of the largest hotels in Ho Chi Minh City. They also need foreign volunteers to contact sponsors and help to expand the school activities. Volunteers are required from February until July to help organize these events.
It is hope that more schools like Spring School will soon be found in other cities in Vietnam.
1. What kind of Spring school?
A. a primary school B. a formal school
C. an informal school D. a secondary school
2. When were dance, theatre, singing and folk music classes set up?
A. In 1997 B. In 2000 C. In 1998 D. In 1999
3. Why do children take part in fund- raising performances?
A. Because they want to expand the school.
B. Because they want to contact sponsors.
C. Because they need money to continue their English and Arts classes.
D. Because they like dancing.
4. Where do children dance, sing and play music?
A. At their School.
B. At one of the largest hotels in Ho Chi Minh City.
C. In Ha Noi.
D. In the theatres.
5. What is the aim of Spring School?
A. It provides classes to volunteers in Ho Chi Minh City.
C. The aim of this school is fundraising.
D. The aim of this school is to raise fund.
B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (11câu = 4 điểm) I . Put the verbs into correct forms (1,5p).
1. He did not expect (invite)…………………………………….. to the party.
2. (Fail) ………………………………….twice, he didn’t want to try again.
3. They went home after they (finish) …………………..their work.
4. (you/watch)…………………………….TV last night?
5. The teacher congratulated me on (make) chúng tôi a clear speech.
6. Mr Barron (study) ………………………………………. French since 2007.
II. Rewrite the following sentences as suggested. (2,5p)
1. “What is your hobby?” Hoa asked Nam.
Hoa asked…………………………………………………………
2. I don’t know her phone number, so I can’t call her now.
If ………………………………………………………………………………
3. I started working here 3 years ago.
I have
4. “I’m terribly sorry I’m late” said Flora.
→ Flora apologized ……………………………………………………………………………..
5. The safeguard locked all the door. He left the office (perfect participle).
→ ……………………………………………………………….
Đáp án Đề thi tiếng Anh 11 học kì 1 A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (1p).
1. B – country
2. C – volunteer
3. D- chemist
4. C – pens
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions (1p).
1. C – like-liked
2. C- to buy – buying
3. B- will – would
4. A – inviting – invited
III. Choosefrom the four options given one best answer to complete each sentence. (2.75p).
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. A
IV. Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers( 1,25p).
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. B
B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (11câu = 4 điểm) I . Put the verbs into correct forms (1,5p).
1. To be invited
2. Having failed
3. Had finished
4. Did you watch
5. Making/ having made
6. Has studied/ has been studying.
II. Rewrite the following sentences as suggested. (2,5p)
1. Hoa asked Nam what his hobby was.
2. If I knew her phone number, I could/would call her now.
3. I have worked/have been working here for 3 years.
4. Flora apologised for being late.
5. Having locked all the door, the safeguard left the office.
Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 11 có đáp án – Đề số 2a. best friends
b. neighbors
c. acquaintances
d. partners
a. learn
b. to learn
c. learning
d. having learnt
a. to take
b. taking
c. than take
d. to taking
a. free
b. voluntary
c. charitable
d. donated
a. turned over
b. put up
c. carried out
d. set in
a. to do
b. do
c. doing
d. done
a. have/ go
b. had/ had
c. had/ had gone
d. had had/ went
a. have/ is ringing
b. were having/ rang
c. had had/ rang
d. having/ ringing
a. a
b. an
c. the
d. no article
a. to examine
b. to be examined
c. being examined
d. being to examine
a. being heard
b. hearing
c. to be heard
d. being hearing
a. Having thought
b. I have thought
c. I thought
d. to have thought
a. take
b. to take
c. having taken
d. being taken
a. Happy anniversary
b. Happy New Year
c. Congratulations
d. Happy birthday to you
a. knew
b. had known
c. know
d. would have known
Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answer:
In an early survey conducted in 1888, a billion and a half people inhabited the earth. Now, the population is about six billion and is growing fast. Even though the rate of growth has begun to slow down, most people believe the population size may be eight billion during the next several years.
If we examine the amount of land available for this ever increasing population, we begin to see the problem. Not all land is useful to us because it cannot produce food. We can cut out about one fifth of it because it is covered by snow and ice. Then we can cut out another fifth because it is desert. Another fifth is mountains. The other fifth does not have enough soil for crops to grow because it is bare rock. Obviously, with so little land to support us, we should take great care not to reduce it any more or with the rapidly growing population we may sooner or later lack food to eat and place to live in.
26. What is the main topic of the passage?
a. The world’s population and the shortage of cultivated land.
b. The growth of the world’s population.
c. The necessity of reducing the rate of birth.
d. The shortage of cultivated land.
a. has stopped growing
b. is still growing
c. is decreasing rapidly
d. stands at about eight billion
a. can cultivate on all land.
b. are not influenced by the land reduction
c. can grow crops on bare rock
d. should protect land
29. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘bare’ in the second paragraph?
a. hard
b. empty
c. treeless
d. rough
30. Which of the following sentences is not true according to the passage?
a. Most of the world’s land are uncultivated.
b. The rapid growth of population may lead to a shortage of land.
c. Only one fifth of the world’s land is being cultivated.
d. There has been a dramatic reduction of the birth rate.
Rewrite the sentences using the given cues:
31. ” If I were you, I wouldn’t buy this coat.”, She said to me. (Change into Reported speech)
32. I don’t have enough free time, so I can’t go out with you. (Using Conditional sentence type 2)
33. “I’m sorry I couldn’t come on Saturday, ” said Tom. (Change into Reported speech with gerund)
34. After we had finished the first term, they went camping yesterday.
(Using Having + V3/ed)
35. Tom and Jerry haven’t talked to each other for 2 years.
⟹ The last time…………
ĐÁP ÁN
1 – b; 2 – d; 3 – c; 4 – b; 5 – a;
6 – c; 7 – b; 8 – d; 9 – b; 10 – c;
11 – a; 12 – d; 13 – b; 14 – a; 15 – b;
16 – a; 17 – a; 18 – c; 19 – d; 20 – b;
21 – C; 22 – C; 23 – D; 24 – A; 25 – B
26 – b; 27 – b; 28 – d; 29 – c; 30 – d;
31 – She told me if she were me, she wouldn’t buy that coat.
32 – If I had enough free time, I could go out with you.
33 – Tom apologized (to me) for not coming on Saturday.
34 – Having finished the first term, they went camping yesterday.
35 – The last time Tom and Jerry talked was 2 years ago.
Mời quý thầy cô, các bậc phụ huynh tham gia nhóm Facebook: Tài liệu ôn tập lớp 11 để tham khảo chi tiết các tài liệu học tập lớp 11 các môn năm 2023 – 2023.
Bộ Đề Thi Học Kì 1 Lớp 12 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án
Bộ đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án
Tài liệu ôn thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12
Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng AnhKì thi học kì 1 là thời gian đầy căng thẳng và áp lực với kỳ vọng của thầy cô, cha mẹ, bạn bè. Hiểu được tâm trạng ấy và mong muốn các em đạt kết quả cao hơn, chúng tôi đã tuyển chọn và giới thiệu Bộ đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án. Hi vọng đây sẽ là tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích cho các em học sinh.
Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………….. Số báo danh:…………………..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 4: A. certificate B. necessary C. economy D. geography
the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
Question 5: What may happen if John doesn’t arrive on time?
Question 6: Tennis wear has become a very lucrative business for both manufacturers and tennis stars.
the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
Question 7: No one knew what would happen to human being in space.
Question 8: All the students got high marks in the test but Mary stood out .
A. got very good marks B. got higher marks than someone
C. got the most marks of all D. got the fewest marks of all
the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 9: The major goals of primary education is to achieve basic literacy and numeracy among all students.
Question 10: The colonist who first settled in New England did so because they felt there was none social justice in their homeland of England.
Question 11: Having been finished her household chores, Mary decided to do some shopping.
A. discuss/ comes B. will have discussed/ comes
C. will discuss/ came D. were discussing/ came
A. So B. Consequently C. Thus D. Now that
Question 24: Peter: “How do you get to work?”
Question 25: John: “I don’t think I can do this.”
A. Oh, come on! Give it a try B. Yeah, it’s not easy
C. No, I hope not D. Sure, no way!
Question 26: It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting18 years old that she is allowed to get married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only after she gets 18 years old.
C. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
D. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
Question 27: The thief wore gloves so as to avoid leaving any fingerprints.
A. The thief wore gloves so as to not leave any fingerprints.
B. The thief wore gloves so that not leave any fingerprints.
C. The thief wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.
D. The thief wore gloves in order to not leave any fingerprints.
Question 28: He might have been joking when he said he was planning to leave home.
A. The idea of leaving home probably amused him a great deal.
B. I don’t know if he was serious when he expressed his intention of leaving home.
C. He could have made a joke about the situation when he left home.
Question 29: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.
D. He said he was going to leave home, but it turned out to be only a joke.
A. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings, so I will have it repaired.
B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the morning.
Question 30: Sue and Brian met. Shortly after that, he announced they were getting married.
C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
D. My motorbike I will get it repaired which cannot start in the mornings.
A.As soon as Sue and Brian met, they announced they were getting married.
B.Right at the time Brian met Sue, he announced they were getting married.
C. Scarcely had Sue and Brian met when he announced they were getting married.
D.Until Sue and Brian met, they had announced they were getting married.
Tiếng Anh lớp 12 là một chương trình học mà các bạn học sinh cần tập trung khá là nhiều dạng ngữ pháp bởi vì nó là một trong những môn sẽ thi THPT Quốc gia. Ngoài việc cung cấp các bộ đề cho các bạn luyện tập, chúng tôi còn sưu tầm và đăng tải những chuyên đề ngữ pháp và bài tập riêng như chuyên đề phát hiện lỗi sai, đọc hiểu ….giúp các bạn nắm chắc và chuẩn bị kĩ càng, yên tâm bước vào kì thi quan trọng nhất.
Cập nhật thông tin chi tiết về Bộ Đề Thi Học Kì 2 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 5 Có Đáp Án trên website Theolympiashools.edu.vn. Hy vọng nội dung bài viết sẽ đáp ứng được nhu cầu của bạn, chúng tôi sẽ thường xuyên cập nhật mới nội dung để bạn nhận được thông tin nhanh chóng và chính xác nhất. Chúc bạn một ngày tốt lành!